Posted by: mystic444 | August 23, 2011

Did Jesus Say Another Prophet Would Follow Him?

And remember, Jesus, the son of Mary, said: “O Children of Israel! I am the messenger of Allah (sent) to you, confirming the Law (which came) before me, and giving Glad Tidings of a Messenger to come after me, whose name shall be Ahmad.” But when he came to them with Clear Signs, they said, “this is evident sorcery!”  (Qur’an 61:6, Yusuf Ali version)

(7) Nevertheless I tell you the truth: it is to your advantage that I go away, for if I do not go away, the Counselor will not come to you; but if I go, I will send him to you. (8) And when he comes, he will convince the world concerning sin and righteousness and judgment: (9) concerning sin because they do not believe in me; (10) concerning righteousness, because I go to the Father, and you will see me no more; (11) concerning judgment, because the ruler of this world is judged. (12) I have yet many things to say to you, but you cannot bear them now. (14) When the Spirit of truth comes, he will guide you into all the truth; for he will not speak on his own authority, but whatever he hears he will speak, and he will declare to you the things that are to come. (14) He will glorify me, for he will take what is mine and declare it to you. (15) All that the Father has is mine; therefore I said that he will take what is mine and declare it to you (John 16:7-15, Revised Standard Version).

When Jesus (peace be with him) said in several places in John (chapters 14, 15, and 16) that a “Counselor” (or “Comforter”) would come after him to carry on and complete his mission, to whom was he referring? For those of us who were raised in orthodox Christianity – or who were “saved” from an ungodly life and attended orthodox Christian churches thereafter – the answer seems pretty obvious: he was referring to “the Holy Spirit” who “came” on the Day of  Pentecost following Jesus’ resurrection and ascension, and who “abides forever” with the Church of God and His Son Jesus Christ. After all, didn’t Jesus specifically say in John 14:26 But the Counselor, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name…?  And in John 14:17, as well as in 16:14 (quoted above), the Counselor is referred to as the Spirit of truth.

While that may sound very clear and plain to our ears, it has not always been so clear to Christrian leaders, teachers, and scholars. In this introduction to his book The Gift to the Intelligent for Refuting the Arguments of the Christians, Anselm Tormeeda (14th century A.D) tells how a discussion of the meaning of those passages about a coming “Counselor” led him to embrace Islam. He was a Christian priest and leader who was surprised when his own very elderly Christian teacher/priest explained to him that Muhammad (peace to him) was the fulfillment of this prophecy by Jesus Christ. Anselm had attended a conference of priests in which John’s account of the “Counselor” passages was discussed. It seems the meaning was unclear enough that a number of different interpretations were advanced. Anselm’s teacher had been unable to attend the meeting due to ill health, so Anselm told him later about the discussion. We are not told what the various interpretations advanced were – not even Anselm’s. But Anselm’s teacher explained that Anselm was close to the truth in his understanding – much closer than some of the others – but nevertheless they all failed to grasp the full truth of the matter. Muhammad was the Prophet of whom Jesus spoke.

During the lifetime of Muhammad, there were Christians who recognized in Muhammad the fulfillment of Jesus’ prophecy (and there were Jews as well as Christians who saw him as the fulfillment of some of the Hebrew prophets’ statements). How could this be if Jesus’ statements were as clear as they seem to be to today’s Christian orthodoxy?

Actually, there are a number of things within these statements which should cause a thinking person to question how they could possibly be referring to “the Holy Spirit” as Christians usually define that term (whether one thinks of it as a “person” within the “Godhead”, or simply views it as referring to the spiritual presence of God in His creation). (1) For one thing, the passage from John 16 quoted at the beginning of this article says that this “Counselor”, referred to by the masculine pronoun “he”, was not present yet with Jesus’ followers. He could only come if Jesus himself left them. (And in fact, Jesus said they would be better off when the “Counselor” would come than they were with his own presence with them). But “the Holy Spirit” (again, whether one interprets that to mean a “person” within the “Godhead”, or the spiritual presence of the One God) had certainly been present with and in God’s creation from the beginning of the world. From the time when the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the deep at the beginning of creation, to the ministry of Jesus Christ who did his mighty works by the power of the Holy Spirit, that “Holy Spirit” had been present with and in God’s people. It was the “Holy Spirit” which “came upon” Mary in order for Jesus to be conceived (Luke 1:35); and John the Baptist was filled with the Holy Spirit from his mother’s womb (Luke 1:15). Jesus required the presence of God’s Spirit to do his mighty works (Matthew 12:28); surely the Spirit’s presence with the disciples was at least equally necessary for those disciples to do the mighty works they did when Jesus sent them out to minister (while he was still living on earth).

It was said concerning the Hebrew King Saul that he prophesied by the Spirit of God (1 Samuel 10:10); and the Psalmist asked where he could go to flee from God’s Spirit (Psalm 139:7). The implied answer of course is “nowhere”, because whatever he did and wherever he went God (or God’s Spirit) would be there with him. I don’t know whether the Psalmist was encouraged or discouraged by that fact 🙂 but he certainly believed it to be a fact.

So if “the Holy Spirit” was present with God’s people (and indeed with all creation) throughout history, it should certainly make us question how Jesus could be saying that “the Holy Spirit” (meaning God’s Spirit) could not “come” unless Jesus departed from the earth.

(2) Another thing which should make a thinking person question the commonly accepted interpretation of Jesus’ statement is the fact that this “Counselor”, when he came, would not speak on his own authority, but would only speak whatever he heard from God (just as was the case with Jesus). This messenger would obviously, like Jesus, be subservient to God – not God’s equal or God Himself. Jesus had said that his Father was greater than he (John 14:28); so would it be with the messenger who would come after Jesus departed.

This coming messenger would also “hear” and “speak”, which certainly implies a human messenger just like Jesus. God’s Spirit would “know” the things of God just as a man’s spirit “knows” the things of a man (see 1 Corinthians 2:11). God’s Spirit would not have to wait to “hear” from God rather than speaking “on his own authority”.

(3) This humanness of the coming messenger is also implicit in what Jesus said in John 14:16 – I will pray the Father, and He will give you another Counselor… In the Greek language in which John’s Gospel narrative was originally written, there are 2 words for “another”: “allos” meaning “another of the same kind”; and “heteros” meaning “another of a different kind”. The word used here (John 14:16) is “allos” – another of the same kind. John is the only New Testament writer to use the word translated “Counselor” or “Comforter” here (parakletos). In his first letter (1 John 2:1) John referred to Jesus as a “parakletos” (translated “advocate”) with the Father. Jesus was a human messenger (the man Christ Jesus, 1 Timothy 2:5), and the coming “Counselor” would be “another of the same kind” – therefore a human messenger like Jesus.

(4) Another indication that the coming “Counselor” would be a human messenger, not God Himself, is the fact that he would be sent by Jesus after his departure from the disciples (John 16:7). This was expressed in various ways by Jesus: in 14:15 he said he would pray the Father, and the Father would send the messenger; in 14:25, he said the Father would send the Counselor in his name; and in 15:26 he said he would send the Counselor from the Father, and that this spirit of truth proceeds from the Father. This is the normal way that the Bible speaks of the coming of a human messenger. Of John the Baptist, it was said: There was a man sent from God, whose name was John ((John 1:7); and Jesus said in this 16th chapter of John (verse 5) that he was returning to the one who sent him. Now Jesus is saying that another messenger of the same kind as he was would be sent from God for the benefit of the followers of Jesus Christ and the world in general.

It should be obvious that the one who sends someone else is quite distinct from the one whom he sends. Now since it was the Father who was going to send the “Counselor” – and the Father is the only true God (John 17:3) – it is quite clear that this “Counselor/holy spirit/spirit of truth” cannot be “true God” or a “person” in the “Godhead”. And neither is Jesus Christ “true God”, since the only true God sent him.

Those would be at least some of the reasons that Christian leaders and scholars would wonder who this promised “Counselor” would be, despite what at first reading would seem to be a clear identification: the Holy Spirit, or Spirit of truth.

The “orthodox” interpretation of the “Counselor/Comforter” passages, of course, in a somewhat circular way both “proves” and depends upon the doctrine of “the Trinity”. But the “Trinity” is a demonstrably false teaching, and is nowhere to be found in the Hebrew and Christian Bible. It took several centuries for this self-contradictory doctrine to become developed in the Christian Church; and even after Church Councils had officially decreed the doctrine it still took quite a while to completely suppress the truth (labeled “Arianism” and called a “heresy”). Once it is grasped that there is no such thing as a “Trinity” of “Persons” in a “Godhead”, then it becomes impossible to suppose that Jesus was going to send God (or the Father was going to send Himself) as a “counselor/messenger” – who would not speak on His own authority but would only say what He heard from Himself 😆 – to believers and the world.

Why then would Jesus have called the promised messenger of God “the holy spirit” and “the spirit of truth” if he was not in fact to be “the Holy Spirit” and the “Spirit of truth” (meaning God Himself, or a “person” in the “Godhead”)? The answer to that is really quite easy to understand, although inconvenient for “Christian orthodoxy”.

The Hebrew and Greek words rendered as “spirit” in English can and do, of course, frequently refer to God Himself. For instance there is the famous statement of Jesus to the Samaritan woman in John 4:24 God is spirit, and those who worship him must worship in spirit and truth. There are plenty of instances where phrases like “the spirit”, “the spirit of God”, and “the holy spirit” either clearly – or, in some cases at least, most probably – refer to God. However, it is also true that “spirit” is also used with reference to those created beings we usually refer to as “angels”, and with reference to men.

With regard to “angels”,for instance, there is the statement of the writer of the letter called “Hebrews” in the Christian “New Testament”: Hebrews 1:14 Are they not all ministering spirits sent out to serve for the sake of those who are to inherit salvation? And 4 places in the book called Revelation (1:4; 3:1; 4:5; and 5:6)  in the New Testament (also attributed to John, as are the “Counselor/Comforter” passages which we are discussing) speak of the seven spirits and the seven spirits of God which are before His throne. I am aware that many Christian interpreters seek to make this refer to the one “Holy Spirit” by rephrasing John’s statements as: “the seven fold Spirit”. By this they mean that the one Holy Spirit has a seven fold ‘ministry’. To my mind, that is a very strained and forced interpretation. Now I am no where near to being a ‘literalist’ in Biblical interpretation – and particularly in the book called Revelation – so I don’t believe that John’s reference to “seven spirits” necessitates the idea that he believed there were only 7 angels who served the Sovereign One. However to attempt to make John’s statements concerning seven spirits of God mean “the seven fold Spirit of God” is really a stretch. He is plainly refering to “angels” as “spirits”.

The “spirits” of men are referred to in such places as Revelation 22:6  And he said to me, “These words are trustworthy and true. And the Lord, the God of the spirits of the prophets, has sent his angel to show his servants what must soon take place.” That comes, once again, from John who recorded Jesus’ statement about the counselor who is the holy spirit and the spirit of truth. The counselor was to be one of those spirits of the prophets, and he would be outstandingly a holy and truthful “spirit”.

Or again from John (1 John 4:6), John refers to men by the term the spirit of truth: We are from God. Whoever knows God listens to us; whoever is not from God does not listen to us. By this we know the spirit of truth and the spirit of error. Here, John says that anyone who listens to God’s messengers is a spirit of truth, while whoever doesn’t listen to the messengers (and therefore obviously doesn’t know God) is a spirit of error.

Once again from John’s first “epistle” (4:1-3), John refers to prophetic spirits. Those spirits who confess that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh are from God, while those who don’t make that confession are not from God but are antichristian spirits.

The “counselor” whom Jesus spoke of was to be someone who listened to, obeyed, and proclaimed the words of God; and he would honor (or “glorify”) Jesus Christ. Therefore, he would be a spirit of truth, not a spirit of error.

An interesting example of what it meant for this “counselor” to be “the holy spirit” can be found in the apostle Paul’s letter called Romans: Rom 1:1  Paul, a servant of Christ Jesus, called to be an apostle, set apart for the gospel of God, Rom 1:2  which he promised beforehand through his prophets in the holy Scriptures, Rom 1:3  concerning his Son, who was descended from David according to the flesh Rom 1:4  and was declared to be the Son of God in power according to the spirit of holiness by his resurrection from the dead, Jesus Christ our Lord. The phrase spirit of holiness is slightly different than “holy spirit”, and I believe it is unique to this passage in the New Testament. However most everyone will acknowledge that a “spirit of holiness” is a “holy spirit”. Here in Romans Paul is referring to Jesus Christ’s spirit as contrasted with his “flesh”. Physically he is said to be descended from David; but his holiness of spirit proclaimed him to be the powerful “son of God”, further proved by his resurrection from the dead. So Jesus Christ was the holy spirit whom God sent to proclaim his message; and he said that another holy spirit would be sent by God after he departed this world. This coming messenger would also be the holy spirit whom God would send.

Who is this prophetic spirit whom Jesus predicted? I agree with Anselm Tormeeda, the 14th century Christian priest who embraced the prophethood of Muhammad on the basis of Jesus’ prophecy, that this prophetic spirit is clearly Muhammad. Muhammad did not speak on his own authority, but spoke only what he heard from God or His angel Gabriel. Not one word in the Qur’an is ever attributed directly to Muhammad; it is always Gabriel who tells Muhammad, “Say…” The message brought through Muhammad honored and glorified his predecessor Jesus Christ. He came with the blessing and authority of Jesus Christ, who sent him from the Father (by praying the Father to send him).

But the verse from the Qur’an quoted at the beginning of this article says that Jesus announced the name of the coming prophet: Ahmad. This is another form of  the name Muhammad; but where in Jesus’ prophecy does it say anything about that name? Well, Jesus almost certainly spoke in Aramaic, not Greek; so John’s Gospel only gives a translation of Jesus’ words, not the words themselves. Also, whoever wrote the Gospel of John was almost certainly an Aramaic speaking Jew for whom Greek was only a second language; and he wrote several decades after Jesus spoke the words.

The word “Ahmad” means “praised”, and “Muhammad” means “praised one”. The Aramaic equivalent of “Muhammad” would be “Mawhamana”; and both that and the Arabic “Ahmad” come from the Aramaic verb “hamida” (“he praised”) and the noun “hamd” (“praise”). What is interesting is that while John used the Greek word “parakletos” (“counselor” or “advocate”), there is another very similar Greek word “periklytos” which is the exact equivalent, in meaning, of the Arabic and Aramaic words I’ve just mentioned. It means “praised one”. Did Jesus use the Aramaic equivalent of Muhammad or Ahmad, and the writer of John mistranslated by using a word sounding very similar to the correct translation “periklytos”? Was Jesus’ actual statement something like “I will ask the Father, and He will send you another [prophet], the praised (or desired) one”? Well, that’s just speculation of course; but I believe it’s very likely. And for one who accepts that Muhammad is indeed the promised one of whom Jesus spoke, and that he spoke only what he heard from God and His angelic messenger Gabriel, there will be no doubt that Gabriel (and Muhammad) knew exactly what he was talking about when he said: And remember, Jesus, the son of Mary, said: “O Children of Israel! I am the messenger of Allah (sent) to you, confirming the Law (which came) before me, and giving Glad Tidings of a Messenger to come after me, whose name shall be Ahmad.

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Responses

  1. Hello, my name is Samira and I’m born into a Muslim family but I don’t worship like one. Reason is I’m very confused on what religion is the right way and I’m the kind that won’t do anything because I came to meet it. I like to have evidences about everything and be convinced enough and also know I can defend myself based on my evidence. So I write this hoping you will help me find the truth. Thank you.

    • Samira – Thanks for your comment. You are definitely correct in desiring convincing evidence before you accept anything – especially religious beliefs. Evaluating evidence using your own reason and logic is very important also.

      I hope things I have written in my blog posts will be helpful. However, I can’t provide you with an answer as to which religion is “the right way”. While I have made some statements in my posts which would indicate that I identify with Islam, I simply went overboard in my enthusiasm while seeking to defend Islam from false accusations. As a matter of fact, a number of times in my posts I have made it clear that I have no religious affiliation, although I am closer to “eastern religions” such as Buddhism and Hinduism than I am to the “Abrahamic” religions.

      Therefore I would recommend that you include those “eastern religions” in your ‘search for the truth’. Look carefully into reincarnation and karma, and “impersonal” concepts of “God” – pantheism, and ‘monism’ as opposed to ‘monotheism’, for example.

      I do believe that Islam is definitely preferable to Judaism or Christianity, but I strongly disagree with some of its fundamental tenets nevertheless. In this article I agreed with Islam that Muhammad was the fulfillment of the prophecy attributed to Jesus about a coming ‘spirit of truth’. However, in the 3rd century C.E./A.D. the alleged ‘heretic’ Manes and his followers (Manichaeans) believed that Manes was the “spirit of truth” and “holy spirit” predicted by Jesus; and for all I know whoever wrote the ‘gospel’ of “John” intended for readers to understand the reference to be to the apostle Paul! I can only say for sure that the author of the prediction attributed to Jesus in “John’s” gospel intended us to understand a human ‘spirit’ as the ‘coming one’.

      I wish you well in your journey to ‘find the truth’.

      • I’m an ex Christian (grandfather was an Orthodox priest) who read the Bible everyday. None of my friends or I ever believed Jesus pbuh was God, when I heard a preacher say this, I knew this wasn’t the true religion because the Bible clearly makes a distinction between Jesus and God. I also remember asking my grandmother who the person Jesus called the comforter is. Holy Spirit didn’t make sense to me. Even as a 10 year old I could see the verse didn’t make sense and Jesus was clearly talking about another prophet. Also, look at Isaiah 29:12 “the book will be given to the one who is illiterate saying ‘read this, I pray thee’ but he will say ‘I cannot read!'” if this doesn’t seal the deal, I don’t know what will. This is a bullseye prophecy I found myself when reading the Bible and as you can imagine it gave me chills and a wide smile. Also, the Quran itself contains so many prophecies which could’ve failed like the prophecy of conquering Mecca two years before! The Muslims were extremely weak nobody would’ve thought they’d enter Mecca two years later victorious! Or Abu Lahab’s wife when the Quran says she’ll enter the fire carrying wood to feed her own hellfire with a twisted rope around her neck. Ten years later she died carrying wood by a rope around her head which slipped and strangled her to death!!! All she and her husband had to do was accept Islam to prove it wrong. Allah made this religion victorious to show who the true prophesied one was. Paul and whoever else this other commenter mentioned have failed!!! Obviously it’s become apparent because Islam has flourished. As for reincarnation and all that stuff I advise you to stay away those will lead you to the hellfire and away from God for sure. Just because you “don’t like some parts” of a religion is NOT a valid reason to turn away if you’re sincerely searching for the Truth. This is playing with religion. If it doesn’t believe in Jesus pbuh and the God of Abraham it’s bullshit pretty much. That means Islam or Christianity. Allah’s made it simple. As Arthur Conan Doyle said “How often have I said to you that when you have eliminated the impossible, whatever remains, however improbable, must be the truth?”. Do not bother yourself with Hinduism and Buddhism which have become so mixed and mingled with human thought and innovations they’re not even recognizable as what they once were. They too may have at one time been from Allah SWT but now they’re nothing but falsehood. Like I said ever since Jesus pbuh came it’s updated and simple, any religion that rejects the Messiah is bullshit, point blank. That leaves two. “How often have I said to you that when you have eliminated the impossible, whatever remains, however improbable, must be the truth?” May Allah guide whom He wills 😉

  2. Ok.If the spirit of truth is Mohamad,how can the spirit of truth die gradually from eating a poisoned meat? Can the Counsellor,Comforter,spirit of truth and the praised one eat poison and die? Beside,how can Comfortor(the claimed Mohamed use cutlases to force people to his religion? Remember the woman who poison him and his guide was the wife of a man killed by Mohamed and took the woman as his wife? Is this the work of a supposed comforter,counsellor and a claimed praised one? I think the quoran and islam is a good thing but the followers are a bunch of trouble causers.If Jesus is the one who prophesied the coming of Mohamed.Why do you make enemies of the followers of Jesus? If you believe that Jesus said Mohamed is the one to come after him as you claimed,then you should believe in that same Jesus who said “I AM the way,no one goes to the father,except through me.”This means you must be a follower of Jesus to go to the father in heaven.You cant believe some of his words and leave some.God have mercy on us humans all.

    • kyaawule John Jerry – Concerning your question about a “Counsellor, Comforter, spirit of truth, and the praised one” being able to die (in the case of Muhammad, some allege due to poisoning), I would ask if you believe that Jesus Christ was crucified and died. According to Christian teaching he was/is the “Wonderful Counselor”, a “Comforter” (inasmuch as he supposedly said he and his Father would send ANOTHER Comforter), is praised (therefore a “praised one”), and is a spirit of truth and holiness. Paul, in the first few verses of Romans 1, said Jesus was born of the seed of David “according to the flesh”, but was powerfully raised according to the “spirit of holiness”. So Jesus was a “holy spirit”, yet according to Christian teaching he died prior to being raised to life again.

      Each of us is a “spirit” residing temporarily in a physical body. Our “spirit” is neither born nor does it die, and does not experience heat, cold, or pain. Our physical bodies experience all of these things, though. Jesus’ spirit could not die, but Christian teaching says that his “body of flesh” died. In the same way, Muhammad’s “spirit” (“holy spirit” and “spirit of truth”) could not die, but Muslim history says his “body of flesh” died from a fever (whether or not that fever was a delayed result of being poisoned 3 years previously).

      The lady who poisoned Muhammad – Zainab – was indeed the widow of one of the men who died at the battle of Khaybar; but she was never the wife of Muhammad. He did marry another Jewish widow from that battle – but not Zainab – and that wife most certainly did not poison him.

      The battles in which Muhammad participated had nothing to do with supposed ‘conversion by the sword’. The Jewish survivors of the battle of Khaybar were not forced to ‘convert’ to Islam; they remained in their Jewish faith. No one was killed due to refusal to convert. “There is no compulsion in religion” is a verse of the Qur’an, and is one of the most basic principles of Islam – no matter how much such ‘extremists’ as ISIS trounce on this principle.

      The overwhelming majority of Muslims are not “trouble causers” and have no desire to have enmity with Christians – although in my experience some or many “Christians” seem to take an unholy delight in stirring up trouble and enmity with Muslims. (And I say that as a person who was raised in evangelical Christianity, embraced it wholeheartedly until my late 30s, and whose family is still evangelical Christian.)

      I myself am now neither Christian nor Muslim – but I certainly don’t seek to cause trouble with either. I count the members of the church my wife, son, and daughter-in-law attend as my friends although I don’t hold to their theology.

      Muslims would indeed consider themselves to be followers of Jesus Christ, as he is considered to be among the greatest of God’s Prophets. They firmly believe in his virgin birth, miracles, ascension into heaven, and future “second coming”.

      Muslims, however, make no commitment to an acceptance of the validity of the Jewish and Christian Scriptures as they appear in the Bible. They don’t feel any need to affirm that the “gospels” contain an accurate account of the life and teachings of the Prophet Jesus.

      So Muslims may deny that Jesus ever made that statement in John’s “Gospel” where Jesus is alleged to have called himself “the way, the truth, and the life”, and to have affirmed that no one can come to “the
      Father” except through him. They may say that those words were falsely put in Jesus’ mouth by whoever wrote that “Gospel”.

      Or, Muslims may simply adhere to another interpretation of those words – such as that this was a metaphorical way of saying that the things he did and taught showed us the way to “the Father”, are the truth, and bring life to those who follow those teachings. Still, they would not say that the “Gospels” necessarily give an accurate account of Jesus’ life and teachings. Another “Comforter” was necessary (Muhammad in Muslim belief) to bring to remembrance what he taught – just as Jesus is alleged (by the author of “John”) to have said.

      So Muslims believe they are followers of Jesus and his teachings, as brought to our remembrance by that “other comforter” and “spirit of truth”, Muhammad.

    • First of all, Muhammad’s companion who ate the meat dropped dead the moment he bit into it while Muhammad lived for three full years afterwards. I would ask you if you could provide evidence of anyone ever living three years after eating poison, uh hum. Second, I would like to add martyrdom is by no means a way to disprove prophecy as Muhammad s.a.w. HOPED for martyrdom sincerely. John the Baptist was beheaded, prophet Isaiah sawed in half, pbut. Hope that helps.

  3. The learned Jewish and Christian leaders 100% know that prophet Muhammad was prophesied to come after Jesus for all mankind. The problem they have is if they teach this truth then the synagogues, churches etc would have to be closed down (no more income for these greedy leaders).

  4. This is the absolute truth. Those who question otherwise have not read a true BIBLE in which Jesus does say fear not my people I leave you now but there will be another and his name shall be Ahmad.

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  7. Zechariah chapter 13
    1“On that day a fountain will be opened to the house of David and the inhabitants of Jerusalem, to cleanse them from sin and impurity.

    2 “On that day, I will banish the names of the idols from the land, and they will be remembered no more,” declares the Lord Almighty. “I will remove both the prophets and the spirit of impurity from the land. 3 And if anyone still prophesies, their father and mother, to whom they were born, will say to them, ‘You must die, because you have told lies in the Lord’s name.’ Then their own parents will stab the one who prophesies.

    4 “On that day every prophet will be ashamed of their prophetic vision. They will not put on a prophet’s garment of hair in order to deceive. 5 Each will say, ‘I am not a prophet. I am a farmer; the land has been my livelihood since my youth.[a]’ 6 If someone asks, ‘What are these wounds on your body[b]?’ they will answer, ‘The wounds I was given at the house of my friends.’

    I don’t know about you, but verse one is pretty much universally accepted that the fountain in the house of David is Christ. Verse 2 clearly states that in that time the prophets and the spirit of impurity will be removed by God himself. In the gospel Jesus says that everything has been disclosed to him, referencing of he who sent him. If everything was disclosed to Christ, what else would have to be told to another prophet?

    • Michael – I’m sorry if this sounds unnecessarily impolite; but universal acceptance that these verses refer to Jesus Christ and events of ‘the Christian Dispensation’ would just show the universal ignorance pervading so-called Christianity in its handling of the “Old Testament” writings. While there are many evidences that this could not possibly be fulfilled in Jesus the son of Mary (peace to them both) and the “church” – especially when one refers back to chapter 12 to find out when “that day” would be – let’s just look at the issue of ‘prophets’, which seems to be the main point of your comment.

      If it was the coming of Christ that was intended, and this coming was supposed to bring the removal of prophets from the land and people, how does this match up with the famous prophecy of Joel that “your sons and your daughters shall prophesy (2:28 – which Acts 2:17 quotes Peter as saying began to be fulfilled on that famous Day of Pentecost)? In keeping with this, Jesus himself is said to have proclaimed that he would send “prophets, wise men, and scribes” to the Jewish people (Matthew 23:34).

      The book of Acts and Paul’s epistles say that there were indeed prophets in the churches. Acts 11:27 says that prophets came down from Jerusalem to Antioch, and verse 12 gives the name of one of them (Agabus). 1 Corinthians 12:10 lists “prophecy” as one of the “gifts of the spirit”; and 14:29 indicates that there were so many prophets in the Corinthian church that Paul suggested that a limitation of 2 or 3 be placed on how many should prophesy in a meeting. Again, Ephesians 4:11 lists “prophets” as one of God’s gifts to the church.

      So if Zechariah 13 was intending to say that there would be no more prophets after the coming of Christ, then he (Zechariah) was apparently a false prophet!

      But even if Zechariah was only saying that false and lying prophets would be removed from the land – which is actually what the context indicates – that also would seem to make him a false prophet. Jesus predicted, in Matthew 24, that many false Christs (verse 5) and false prophets (verse 11) would arise in those “last days”; and 1 John 4:1 confirms that “many false prophets have gone out into the world”. Josephus referred to the false prophets who deluded the Jewish people into believing they would be delivered from the Romans. There have been false prophets and false Christs both among Jews and Christians since those “last days” also.

      Can you really believe that Zechariah 13:3 refers to the result of the coming of Jesus Christ??? Did Jesus Christ ever intimate that parents should stab to death their own children if they dared to prophesy??? I just have to exclaim: “You can’t be serious!!!” I have to believe Jesus’ response to such an idea would be the same as he gave to James and John when they wanted to call down fire from heaven on some Samaritans: “You do not know what manner of spirit you are of. For the son of man did not come to destroy men’s lives, but to save them” (Luke 9:55 and 56).

      As to your closing question (“If everything was disclosed to Christ, what else would have to be told to another prophet?”): John wrote that Jesus himself answered that question (16:12 and 13). “I still have many things to say to you, but YOU CANNOT BEAR THEM NOW. However, when he, the spirit of truth, has come, he will guide you into all truth; for he will not speak on his own authority, but whatever he hears he will speak…”

  8. Further to the above, Muslims believe that Prophet Muhammad was the Arab prophet born in Mecca in the year 571 AD. Well, as said earlier Prophet Muhammad came much earlier with the Holy Quran. In fact, a Messenger after the Prophet, born in 571 AD, descended from Prophet Ismael, as per the Holy Quran 03:81.

    PROOFS FROM THE HOLY QURAN…

    AQ 03:31 Say, [O Muhammad], “If you should love Allah, then follow me, [so] Allah will love you and forgive you your sins. And Allah is Forgiving and Merciful.”

    The above verse is the saying of the Prophet as commanded by the LORD. Subsequently, the Prophet was commanded to tell his people…

    AQ 03.32

    Say, “Obey Allah and the Messenger.” But if they turn away – then indeed, Allah does not like the disbelievers.

    The Prophet was commanded to tell his people to obey ALLAH AND HIS MESSENGER!. Who is that MESSENGER IF HE [PRO MOE] IS ALREADY THERE AND SAID AS PER VERSE 03:31?

    • To “The Persain” – Peace to you. There is nothing difficult in those 2 verses which would compel anyone to imagine that “the messenger” is someone different from “me” in verse 31. The 2 verses are simply parallel statements with the same meaning. You must be aware that in the Qur’an the Prophet Muhammad is over and over called “the messenger of Allah/God”. So to say “If you love God, follow me” is simply the exact equivalent of saying “Obey God and the messenger”. Muhammad is “the messenger”, and “the messenger” is Muhammad. Enough said.

  9. Yes, Esa said that a Prophet will come with a revelation as stated in the Glorious Quran 07:157-158.

    First Off, when did the Holy Quran was sent down by ALLAH?

    If you read the Holy Quran 02:78; 03:78; 04:45; 05:15,43,44,45,46,47; 06:91….all these verses [with regards to the distortion of OT] were written in the present tense. Meaning, the Quran was sent down to the Prophet at a time when the OT was still intact! If the OT had been distorted, the verses will be in past tense! The Glorious Quran was sent down before the Creed of Nicaea!!!

    The Prophet was sent to warn the people of the Book, to be cautious…

    AQ 05:68

    Say, “O People of the Scripture, you are [standing] on nothing until you uphold [the law of] the Torah, the Gospel, and what has been revealed to you from your Lord – [The Holy Quran].”

    If the Book had already been distorted, the above verse will render useless!

    Further, why should ALLAH ALMIGHTY told the Prophet to ask the people of the Book if the Book had been distorted?

    AQ 10:94

    So if you are in doubt, [O Muhammad], about that which We have revealed to you, then ask those who have been reading the Scripture before you. The truth has certainly come to you from your Lord, so never be among the doubters.

    The ALL MERCIFUL ALLAH [GOD], will never stop from providing HIS servants guidance!

    Nevertheless, the OT was distorted by a group of people as prophecised,

    AQ 03:78 And indeed, there is among them a party who twist the Book with their tongues so you may think it is from the Book, but it is not from the Book. And they say, “This is from ALLAH,” but it is not from ALLAH. And they speak untruth about ALLAH while they know.

    AND AQ 06:91

    And they did not appraise ALLAH with true appraisal when they said, ” ALLAH did not reveal to a human being anything.” Say, “Who revealed the BOOK that Moses brought as light and guidance to the people? You [Jews] MAKE IT into PARCHMENT, SCATTER IT and CONCEALING MUCH. And you were taught that which you knew not – neither you nor your fathers.” Say, ” Allah [revealed it].” Then leave them in their [empty] discourse, amusing themselves.

    The OT comprises of ONLY ONE BOOK. NOW THERE 66 BOOKS!!!
    [NOTE: AQ 06:91 was written in present tense -CAPITAL LETTERS]

    As far as AQ 61:06 is concern, the Messenger [not from the prophetic linage], has nothing to do with Prophet Muhammad.

    And [mention] when Jesus, the son of Mary, said, “O children of Israel, indeed I am the messenger of Allah to you confirming what came before me of the Torah and bringing good tidings of a messenger to come after me, whose name is Ahmad.” But when he came to them with clear evidences, they said, “This is a magic.”

    This verse states explicitly that the Messenger Ahmad was sent to preached the OT and the people concern said that what he preached was “A MAGIC”. Bear in mind, “A MAGIC” is referring to the OT.

    Lets take a look at AQ 28:48

    But when the truth came to them from Us, they said, “Why was he not given like that which was given to Moses?” Did they not disbelieve in that which was given to Moses before? They said, “[They are but] TWO WORKS OF MAGIC supporting each other, and I, we are, in both, disbelievers.”

    In 28:48, the Prophet Muhammad presenting the Holy Quran to the people. The people questioned why did he not preached the Book [OT] that was inherited by Prophet Moses and when they were told that they did not even believe the Book of Moses, the people get frustrated and denounce both the Book of Moses and Holy Quran and called them TWO MAGIC BOOKS!

    The above verse shows explicitly that during the era of Muhammad 2 Holy Books were present while in 61:06 only 1!

    Further in conjunction with 03:81, where the covenant between ALLAH and HIS Prophets

    And when Allah took the covenant of the prophets, [saying], “Whatever I give you of the Book and Wisdom and then there comes to you a Messenger confirming what is with you, you [must] believe in him and support him.” [Allah] said, “Have you acknowledged and taken upon that My commitment?” They said, “We have acknowledged it.” He said, “Then bear witness, and I am with you among the witnesses.”

    The above verse simply means, after the ministry of each Prophet, a Messenger will come to support the teaching of that Prophet.

    • To “The Persain” – Peace be with you. I respect your right to use your reason and intuition in interpreting the revelations of the prophets, so I mean no disrespect to you when I say that I find your reasoning specious and spurious. I will give you my response (though perhaps not a point-by-point response); but if you don’t find it convincing please don’t seek to carry on a back-and-forth argument with me.

      You say the use of the present tense verbs in several verses shows that the “Old Testament” had not yet been corrupted when the Qur’an was revealed to “the Prophet”. That could only be true if the Qur’an was revealed long before the time of Jesus Christ (PBUH) – because Jesus said that the scribes and Pharisees made void the Law of God by means of their traditions; and that he had come to restore and perfect the Law which the scribes had destroyed.

      Furthermore, the “Old Testament” existed in its present corrupted form at least a couple of hundred years before the time of Jesus, as is evident by the Greek Septuagint translation of the “Old Testament” – translated by 70 Jewish scholars.

      Even further back than that, though, it was obviously corrupted by the time of the prophets Isaiah and Jeremiah. In a comment on another article, you referred to Isaiah 29:11-13. Verse 13 says that the Jews’ worship was ‘vain’ because it was based on the commandments and doctrines of men. Jeremiah was even stronger when he said in 8:8 that the Jews didn’t even have the Law of the LORD because “the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie”.

      Yet the Qur’an obviously bears testimony to the fact that it was revealed long after the time of Jesus Christ (PBUH), and at a time when the (false) doctrines of “the Deity of Christ” and “the Trinity” had become the ‘official’ doctrines of Christians.

      The use of the present tense when referring to Jews who twist and distort the Scripture does not prove your point – unless you imagine that the fact that some Jews were still actively doing so proves that Jews of previous generations had not also done that same kind of distorting. It is rather a fact that such twisting and corrupting is an ongoing preoccupation with the Jews – as shown by the statements of Isaiah, Jeremiah, and Jesus (peace to them all).

      Jesus Christ was a messenger confirming the truth of previous revelation (as well as exposing the blatant corruptions in the so-called ‘Scripture’ of the Jews) and a prophet bringing a new revelation (the “Gospel”). Muhammad was a messenger confirming the truth of previous revelations also (including the ‘Gospel’ of Jesus Christ) and exposing the errors and corruption which existed. He was also, like Jesus, a prophet bringing a new revelation – relaying God’s command that the people were to obey him (the messenger).

      In 10:94, the prophet Muhammad was told to ask the people of the Book for confirmation if he had any doubts about the message he himself was delivering concerning “Old Testament” events. This was not a command to ask the Jews and Christians whether or not the “Old Testament” had been corrupted. However, any knowledgeable and honest Jewish person would have to acknowledge, if asked, that his Scriptures had been corrupted long ago, as testified by the Jews’ own prophets (whom the Jews tended to murder, though).

      You refer to a verse that speaks of the “Book” (singular) which was revealed to Moses, and then conclude that the “Old Testament” was only one book. But the “Old Testament” consists of far more than just the revelation given to Moses, as the Qur’an itself testifies. The Qur’an recognizes Moses, the Psalms of David, Solomon, and other prophets as part of previous Scriptures. Perhaps one might argue that Moses only received one “Book”, so that the “Pentateuch” (5 Books) is an obvious corruption. But as pointed out previously, the “Pentateuch” existed at least a couple of hundred years before the time of Jesus; it did not suddenly appear sometime after the time of Jesus (the Council of Nicaea for instance).

      You also need to keep in mind that the Qur’an is not the word of Muhammad, but the word of God and His Angel-messenger Gabriel. When it speaks of the prophet/messenger, it naturally uses the “third person” form. And the Qur’an can speak of the messenger/prophet’s coming in the past tense because Muhammad’s ministry had indeed begun a number of years before that specific Sura and Ayah were given. This does not make the “messenger” someone different than “the prophet”, and who came a long time after “the prophet”. The two “Books” referred to would be the the “Book” of Moses and the “Book” of Muhammad (which was in the process of revelation, not complete). However, as pointed out, the Qur’an recognizes that there was much more to the “Book” which the “People of the Book” legitimately had than just the “Book” of Moses. The “Book” also contained the Psalms, the Prophets, and the Gospel of Jesus.

      Therefore I find no reasonable ground to accept your assertion that the prophet Muhammad came a long time before the commonly accepted time of his birth in 571 C. E., and that the “messenger” who was born at that time was someone other than Muhammad.

  10. As I, one of many whom read this, have a few challenging questions of your faith. Not to temp or sway your beliefs to our differences, but to compare and test. Three questions come to mind. #3 if the promise of eternal life is everlasting peace in a sinless controlled environment next to god. Then why was a brutal force of pillaging/sex and money a factor for your living comforter? Lead by example? #2 why was he afraid of death and had another take his place? #1 sahih 44 21, in what hope does anyone else have? None. The feeling people get, the rush, from the devious actions of bloodshed/greed/desire sends the heart into a warm exciting pace. A pace of excitement and moral compression. That my friend is fire. A book that excepts/permits actions of the sort. Death is not the center of my faith, but of the fairness/forgiveness and love for another as he had shown. The heart fills but not paces with a warmth that matches no other when you are around who you love. False love for life/money turns to fear of losin it. some things cannot stand up to what That is of god.
    Yes, my views are not orthodox. But Jesus warned of corruptions threw the hands of the whicked, test everything. Godbless.

    • “Hellsgift2u” – I’m not sure I even correctly comprehend your questions and statements; but I will respond to the best of my ability.

      First, let me point out that, to the best of my understanding of what you have written, your comment has nothing to do with the article upon which you’re commenting; and it most certainly offers no ‘challenge’ to my faith. Yes, I believe that Muhammad (peace to him and his family) was a true prophet of the One, and that he was the one being spoken of by Jesus Christ (peace to him) in his statements about a coming “counselor/comforter”. But that is just one aspect of ‘my faith’. To get a more comprehensive viewpoint of ‘my faith’, you would have to read more of my articles, under various of the listed “categories”.

      One article which might help would be “Muslim in Spirit”; but you would need to also read some of my articles under “Universalism/Reincarnation”, “Biblical Interpretation”, and “Biblical Eschatology” (as well as other articles under the “Islam” category) to begin to really comprehend ‘my faith’.

      Now to your three “questions” (to the best of my comprehension of them) – and in the order in which you presented them: (3) While “the promise of eternal life is everlasting peace in a sinless controlled environment next to god” may possibly represent a very literal understanding of Biblical and Qur’anic statements, I do not interpret either the Bible of the Qur’an in that manner. My ‘faith’ contains the belief in reincarnation and continuing spiritual development of all people; I see the ‘hellfire’ language as metaphorical and allegorical representations of the same concept which ‘eastern religions’ refer to as ‘karma’.

      The idea that I would ever be “next to God” is completely foreign to ‘my faith’. I do not conceive of ‘God’ as a ‘personal Being’ separate from ‘creation’. Rather, “God” is a living “Force” (to use “Star Wars terminology with which most people these days are probably familiar) which permeates all ‘creation’. In fact, all ‘creation’ is made of this “Force”, and all ‘things’ are simply forms which the “Force” takes. As the Christian apostle Paul said – quoting so-called ‘pagan’ philosophers – “in Him we live and move and have our being”. How could I say that “God” is “next to” me as if “He” were a separate and distinct Being from me? I am “in Him” and “He” is “in me”. I certainly do not have to wait until physical death for this to be true, either.

      Then (still as part of question 3) you asked: “Then why was a brutal force of pillaging/sex and money a factor for your living comforter? Lead by example?” I assume you’re referring to Muhammad (peace to him and his family) as my “living comforter”; and you are apparently saying that the prophet promoted aggressive violence, sexual immorality, and greedy grasping after money. If that is what you’re saying, then you know nothing of Islam and the Qur’an. You need to get a good English ‘interpretation’ of the Qur’an (if you don’t read Arabic) such as Muhammad Assad, Yusuf Ali, or Abdel Haleem, and read it for yourself rather than relying on the twisted distortions of Muslim bashers (such as Geert Wilders, Robert Spencer, Pam Geller, Frank Gaffney, or sites such as “answering Islam”). See what a contextual reading of the Qur’an gives you, as opposed to ‘cherry picked’ short sentences and partial sentences loved by the ridiculers of Islam.

      Your question #2 asks: ” why was he afraid of death and had another take his place?” I presume that by “he” you are referring to Jesus Christ, not Muhammad (peace to both of them). The idea that someone else was substituted for Jesus – to be crucified instead of Jesus – is no part of my belief system; and many Muslims reject that idea also. It is true that many Muslims DO believe this ‘substitution’ view, but there are also many who DON’T accept it. (I’m not at all sure that most of those who believe the ‘substitution’ hypothesis would assert that the ‘substitution’ occurred because Jesus was afraid to die, though).

      I wrote an article in July, 2010 entitled The Death of Jesus in the Qur’an which presents one alternate understanding of the Qur’anic teaching on the crucifixion. If you read the comments on that article (as well as on this article on which you commented) you will find other explanations of Jesus’ ‘apparent’ crucifixion and death which do not depend on a substitution of someone else for Jesus.

      An alternate explanation – other than the idea I presented 3 years ago – is pretty much the same as many people make concerning the “near death” experience so well known today. Did such people actually die, or did they only “appear” to be dead? Many people insist that by definition ‘death’ means that a person cannot be resuscitated. Anyone who ‘revives’ after supposedly dying actually only “appeared” to be dead. Many Muslims (as well as people like Rosicrucians) say that this was the case with Jesus. While Jesus “appeared” to be crucified and killed, in reality God only temporarily took his soul as is said to be the case in sleep, and then returned his soul as is said to be the case when one awakes from sleep. Those who maintain this viewpoint say that Jesus was not “crucified” because the concept of “death” was inherent in crucifixion; if a person failed to actually “die”, then he was not in fact “crucified”. He was hung on a cross; but because he failed to die, he was not “crucified”. You can accept or reject that explanation; but many Muslims believe it and completely reject the idea that someone else was crucified and killed in Jesus’ place.

      I really don’t understand what you’re saying in question #1. I looked up “sahih 4421” and it was about Muhammad supposedly passing a judgment of death by stoning on a confessed adulterer. I simply don’t see what that has to do with the question which follows (“in what hope does anyone else have?”) or to your following comments. Let me reiterate, though, that no matter what may be true of some Christians and Muslims, I do not take a literalistic view of the “heaven” and “hell” statements of either the Bible or the Qur’an. My view encompasses reincarnation and ‘karma’ which everyone experiences, and accepts the ultimate ‘salvation’ of ALL souls. You see, I’m not ‘orthodox’ either! 😆

      I don’t know what book you refer to which supposedly accepts or permits ” bloodshed/greed/desire”. Perhaps some “Satanic” or “Luciferian” cult has such a book; or perhaps you’re referring to the “Old Testament” of the Bible which certainly promotes such ‘evil’ in many places. But the Qur’an does not fit into that description; it only permits defensive fighting as a ‘last resort’ when attempts at reasonable persuasion have failed. If you reject even defensive fighting, then of course you’ll have to reject the Qur’an. But if you accept the right of a ‘people’ to defend themselves against murderous attacks by others, then you have no reasonable argument with Islam.

      • I think what Hellsgift2u (A name which he has given to refer us) is referring in #2 is when Quraysh tribe members plotted to kill Muhammad (Peace and blessing be upon him). Ali had worn Muhammad’s cloak, leading the assassins to think Muhammad had not yet departed.
        I can answer to brother (in hidden name Hellsgift2u). but not in the way that mystic444 can.
        Point #1 I think he is referring to Quranic verse 44:21 of Sahih Bukhari transliteration Where Musa (Moses) (Peace and blessing be upon him) say : “But if you believe me not, then keep away from me and leave me alone.” Hellsgift2u has misunderstood quotes (not reading complete versus from 44:17 to 44:33 read from this website http://www.dar-us-salam.com/TheNobleQuran/ ) or has copy pasted from some anti-islam website. And thought that either God or Muhammad (Peace and blessing be upon him) has said this word.
        Thanks to mystic444 on this good article and replying and expalining nicely to all the comments of our muslim and non-muslim Brothers.
        At the end I will like to say to all Muslims & Non-Muslims to understand the basic message of Allah (praise be his name) [God, Tetragrammaton, Yahweh, Elohim, Jehovah, Dieu, Dios, Ek Onkar, Ishwar, Ahura Mazda, Bhagwan As Allah said in Quran he like all the name which is been called only refering him) in all the religious scripture is to worship only him alone (alone means there is no wife, son, daughter of him). Always Do righteous thing. He commanded this in every religious scripture so that there will be unity, peace and brotherhood. As we are brothers of each other, sons of Adam & Eve (Hawa)
        If we believe other then him as a God or Saviour then there will be no unity, peace and brotherhood as we see till today.
        Peace and blessing of Allah, the one and only one, on all on earth.

        • Amir – Peace to you, and thanks for your comment. You may be correct about the meaning of points ‘1’ and ‘2’ in the comment of “Hellsgift2u”, so thanks for catching that.

          If in point ‘2’ he was referring to the incident in the life of Muhammad (peace to him and his family) when he fled to Medina – using the ruse of having Ali (peace to him) sleep in his bed – I would just point out that seeking to protect one’s life is not necessarily the same as ‘being afraid to die’. Muhammad could safely use the ruse (without endangering Ali’s life) because he knew that his enemies would not kill Ali. They wanted the leader, not one of the followers no matter how prominent that follower. The sequel of course proved Muhammad to be correct.

          In the ‘New Testament Gospels’, Jesus (peace to him) also is said to have avoided attempts on his life on more than one occasion before allowing himself to be arrested and – apparently, at least – killed. He also instructed his disciples that when they were persecuted in one city, they should flee to the next. One might say that Muhammad (peace to him and his family) was just following the instructions of Jesus in this matter! 🙂 And as I said, he was not asking Ali (peace to him) to let himself be killed in his place; he knew very well that when his would-be-murderers realized they had been fooled, they would let Ali go. It was a “win” situation for both Muhammad and Ali.

          If “Hellsgift2u” was referring to the Qur’an (44:21) rather than a ‘hadith’ number 4421, then it would certainly explain his followup question asking who else they could go to. Of course, God/Allah is indeed the only source of life and ‘salvation’; but if people are not willing to believe God and His prophets, then God is quite willing to let people continue to stumble around in their blindness and ignorance – until the less-than-pleasant results of such stumbling eventually cause them to return to God and listen to His prophets. As I said in my own comment, I believe that eventually everyone will in fact “return to God” spiritually (not just have to stand before Him to be ‘judged’) and will be enlightened and ‘saved’. No matter how many lifetimes it takes, that will be the result for all.

  11. The prophecy said Ahmad; ‘Servant of God’ will war in bringing judgement, to correct the wrongs. He will also liberate Arabia from worshiping molten images. Wilderness (desert), villages and cities will glorify God. This is what happen today. Whole of Arabia worshiping God daily.

    And we continue reading Isaiah 42:18 – 25; Children of Israel will still be deaf and blind as they neglect the message brought by the ‘Servant of God’.
    ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

    In Isaiah 42:1, this cannot be a coincidence. If we look at the writing of אתמך (Atmc) אחמד (Ahmad). Not to mentioned אתמך (Atmc) is a term used only once throughout. [Scribes copying error or indeed an intended error?] And the word before אתמך (Atmc), is עבדי (Abedi~My Servant). It is indeed indicating Ahmad; Abedallah (Ahmad; Servant of God).

    Children of Israel had been foretold by the coming of Ahmad but only a few accepts.

  12. I am so pleased to have discovered the exchanges of research and interpretation discussed above.
    Of all the time we spend in the demands of our busy lives these subjects amongst other fundamental questions of historical events in contextual and language specifics, are of the utmost importance to share and discuss, in my opinion.

    More than ever in my lifetime, ( I am in my late 60’s ), the ‘globalisation’ of media access reveals that every aspect of modern commerce and political positioning across the world is deeply influenced or manipulated in the acceptance or rejection or divisions within the three Abrahamic, ( pbuh ), faiths . Wonderful debate….thirsty peoplem like me , look to have their thirst quenched. Thanks to all those who expressed their research and beliefs above and to those who take the discussion further.

  13. Let everyone go for what he/she believed in. God is one yet He sent many messengers. But Jesus is a true Messiah and Saviour

    • Thanks for your comment. I agree with each statement you made; and I believe Muslim believers would also. Well, maybe they wouldn’t be inclined to use the word ‘Saviour’ with regard to any human or angelic messenger of God. But I believe that if one understands by ‘Saviour’ that the messenger is the one who brings – by way of his message and manner of life – the salvation which God (the only true ‘Saviour’) gives to believers, then Muslims would accept the concept even if they don’t wish to use the term.

      “There is no compulsion in religion” is a basic concept of Islam, as given in the Qur’an. It is God who alone guides whom He will to the truth, and leaves to stray whom He will. It is not up to us to try to force His hand! We may have a responsibility to bear witness to the truth, but beyond our witness, we must leave each person to accept or reject what we say.

      That God is One, but sends many messengers, is also a basic and frequently asserted concept in the Qur’an. That Jesus is among the greatest of the messengers God sent is insisted on in the Qur’an. A person can’t be a Muslim if he rejects the Prophethood and Messiahship of Jesus.

      Jesus is specifically called the “Messiah” in the Qur’an. And as I said, while the Qur’an does not use the word “Saviour” to refer to any of God’s messengers (to the best of my memory, anyhow), I believe Muslims would accept the concept so long as one does not mean the ‘Evangelical Christian’ concept of Jesus as the ‘substitutionary sacrifice’ for believers; or that Jesus being “saviour’ means that he is “God”. If one simply means what Nehemiah (9:27) and Obadiah (1:21) meant when they said God would send ‘saviours’ to His people (messengers and prophets who proclaim and manifest the salvation of God – and therefore bring God’s deliverance to His people) then I believe Muslims would be quite willing to accept that Jesus was one of those ‘Saviours’ – and that Muhammad and all the other true prophets of God were also among those ‘Saviours’.

  14. I’ve been Muslim Convert since 2006 and lost pretty much all family member when I told them. They call me the Antichrist and blasphemy and Satan but they would accept their gay son and their son who murdered someone in cold blood over me a good Muslim who does no wrong to anyone. My so called family day they r “born again” but eat pork get drunk and dance around to rave music even though the nubile says its forbidden. My father said he doesn’t worry about what he does with his time cos he has a secure eternity an he is worst of all of them gettin drunk dancing around to rave music and eating pork all his life, he supports his gay son and murderous abuser. Tell me is that a god fearing man who is going to heaven. My opinion is no god doesn’t except these things in any covenant he has said bible or Torah or Quran. He lies about me to others to make ppl feel sorry for him and follow his ways. He preaches the bible to everyone and is a fanatic but doesn’t even follow what he preaches. It is the same thing with his follows. Most Christian who read this would be shocked and agree with me a Muslim that this man is not going to heaven at all.

    I love this article, it gets you thinking on a simple but intelligent level. There is no bias in what has been written its just analysing the facts. Christians forget that Jesus(pbuh) didn’t speak English and the gospel at his time was not in English. It’s a bit like Chinese whispers somewhere along the line of interpreting to English the meanings have changed to suit the writers not the truth.

    Many kings and world leaders changed the meanings and write their own versions to suit what they wanted to control in people. To make their own beliefs believable to others and for those to follow them in fear they had to distort what the true gospel said. Eg: the death of Jesus on the cross and the roman soldier standing under the cross who said” this surely is the son of god”. These where put in to confirm the writers theory that Jesus is god an is the son of god.

    Christians believe that we r all born with sin cos of Adams sins when he ate from the tree, so Jesus was born so of u believe that then he was born a sinner without even doing a sin yet, and if Jesus is god then that makes god a sinner and the holy spirit as Christians believe in the trinity!! As we know God is pure in ever form and every way and to believe this is not true is one of the biggest sins and will not earn u a spot in heaven.

    Christians also believe the tree referring to Adam and eve was a magical apple tree and it wa the fruit from that tree that open them to becoming sinners. This is stupid to believe!! It was the concept of disobeying Gods order not to eat of the tree that cast then out of paradise not the fruit itself.

    Anyways there is tones of evidence to show, even a simple person like me, that what John was saying that there was to be a final messenger of God after Jesus. It’s simple when Jesus said I have many things to tell you but you can not hear them now. The understanding of people at that time, was that they were not able to handle and understand everything that God wanted them too. So to complete God message there would have to be one more messenger to come after Jesus(pbuh) to tell us all what Jesus was referring to. For my simple understanding the message was incomplete cos that was jesus(pbuh) said.

    I could go on for ages but even when I found out this revaluation being Muslim coming from a fanatic Pentecostal background it was hard to believe cos I felt betrayed and deceived by those who say they r bible scholars but when I asked God for guidance I then started to get the facts and the proof that in fact Jesus prophicied the coming of another prophet to complete Gods message.

  15. Very informative and excellent peace of work. you blog answered most of my questions. thank you,

    • I’m glad you found the article helpful and informative. May the awareness of God’s kindness be with you constantly.

  16. I read your article and understood that it‘s a mere display of your interlectual arguement.

    • Toma Yamu – Thank you for reading my article, and for recognizing that it is reasonable and logical. What I continually find amazing, though, is how people such as yourself complain about “mere” intellectual argument – as if using the reasoning capacity given to us by our Creator is something of which we ought to be ashamed! Reason and intellect are among the highest of God’s gifts to His creatures, for which we ought to be grateful and which we ought to gratefully use. It is by the use of this gift that we are able to follow the exhortation of the apostle Paul in 1 Thessalonians 5 to put all ‘prophecies’ to the test, and cling to what is good while fleeing from everything that has the appearance of evil.

      What follows is a quotation from an e-mail I sent to someone else about the importance which the Bible itself places on the use of ‘reason’ (‘intellectual argument’). Since it was written to someone else, some of the statements will not apply directly to you; but the overall meaning is, I believe, quite appropriate as a response to your comment also.

      “While I honestly do not mean to be offensive, I have to say that it’s rather amusing that you object to the use of logic in dealing with the things of God. You yourself have been using logic – which is simply the use of reason and intelligent thinking – in seeking to persuade me of what you consider to be the error of my ways. The person who uses reason and logic in argumentation should not object to the use of reason and logic in argumentation! 😀

      Of course, you really can’t help logical ways of thinking, because logic and rationality is built into our very natures by our Creator. Struggle against it all you will (or pretend to struggle against it), you simply can’t avoid it. It’s one of the things that separate human beings from the ‘lower creation’.

      Your pretended struggle against the use of reason also shows, once again, the fact that you have not ‘read thoroughly’ the Bible as you claim; you are ignoring the heavy emphasis in the Bible on reasonable and logical thinking. Consider the following verses in Old and New Testaments (using the KJV which you seem to prefer):

      1Samuel 12:7 Now therefore stand still, that I may reason with you before the LORD of all the righteous acts of the LORD, which he did to you and to your fathers. (Samuel speaking).

      Job 13:6 Hear now my reasoning, and hearken to the pleadings of my lips. (Job speaking).

      Isa 1:18 Come now, and let us reason together, saith the LORD: though your sins be as scarlet, they shall be as white as snow; though they be red like crimson, they shall be as wool. (Notice that, according to Isaiah, the LORD Himself calls on people to reason [think and speak logically] with him).

      Act 17:2 And Paul, as his manner was, went in unto them, and three sabbath days reasoned with them out of the scriptures,

      Act 18:4 And he reasoned in the synagogue every sabbath, and persuaded the Jews and the Greeks.

      Act 18:19 And he came to Ephesus, and left them there: but he himself entered into the synagogue, and reasoned with the Jews.

      Act 24:25 And as he reasoned of righteousness, temperance, and judgment to come, Felix trembled, and answered, Go thy way for this time; when I have a convenient season, I will call for thee.

      Indeed, Paul’s letters constantly use logical argument to seek to persuade his readers of the truth (or at least what he believed to be the truth). Just think of his ‘reasoning’ about the resurrection in 1 Corinthians 15, for instance. Why in the world would you think I might be made ashamed for using reason and logic for argumentation? If you will think about it, you will realize that Jesus himself used reason and logic in his teaching – and sought to get his hearers to use their reason to see the truth of what he taught. That was one of the reasons for speaking in parables: to get his hearers to think about ordinary every day events, and make logical deductions about their relevance to spiritual reality.” [End of quotation]

      I have to wonder: was your recognition of the logic of my article, as “mere” as it may be, also a recognition that your ‘understanding’ of the passage under consideration is in fact illogical? Would that perhaps be the real reason you feel compelled to sneer at ‘intellectual argument’?

    • Hi,

      Please could you point me in the page as where in the Bible is the stament about. Many thanks,

      • Katie – The particular Biblical passage I referred to in this article was John 16:7-15. I gave the quotation at the beginning of the article. In addition you will find Biblical passages relating to the “Comforter” (“Counselor” or “Helper’) in John 14:16, 17, 25, 26; and John 15:26.

        • Hi, Yes I understand that and I am sorry to trouble you. However, I was more intrested to where it acctually in a Bible Jesus say the name of Ahmad is coming after me.

          • Okay, I see what you’re asking; and I apologize for my misunderstanding. I dealt with that question in the final two paragraphs of this article – particularly the final paragraph.

            There is no verse in the Bible as we have it in English (or the Greek for that matter) which says that a coming messenger will have the name “Praised” (“Ahmad’). However, the Greek word translated “Comforter/Counselor/Helper” (“parakletos”) is very similar to another Greek word meaning “praised” (“perikletos”). I speculated (and yes, it is speculation) that Jesus – who spoke in Aramaic – probably used the Aramaic word which is equivalent to the Arabic “Ahmad”; and that John, for whom Greek was a second or third language, just mistranslated using a wrong (though similar) Greek word.

            It should be kept in mind, also, that when the expression “his name shall be…” is used (in the Bible or in the Qur’an), it does not necessarily mean that the person will literally be named whatever word is used. For instance, though Christians generally believe that when Isaiah (in 7:14) prophesied the coming of a child whose name would be “Immanuel” he was referring to the birth of Jesus, it is obvious that Jesus was not in fact named “Immanuel”. But Christians can claim that Jesus was in fact “God with us” even though that was not literally his name. (I of course, disagree with the idea that Isaiah was prophesying the birth of a child several hundred years in his future; and with the notion that Jesus was “God incarnate”).

            Even so, it may be that the meaning of the Qur’anic statement that Jesus predicted the coming of one whose name would be “Praised” (“Ahmad”) was not saying that Jesus prophesied he would literally be named “Praised”; rather he prophesied that the coming one would be praised or praiseworthy in character. And a muslim believer will accept the truthfulness of this statement in the Qur’an, even if there is not in fact any Biblical record of that statement. After all, it is well known that the Gospel writers did not even come close to recording everything Jesus said (even during that short 3 year ministry). The Gospel writer John explicitly tells us that probably the whole world could not contain everything Jesus did and taught if the attempt were made to record it all. 🙂

            It is sufficient for me to find in these statements in John’s Gospel a prediction of a human messenger who would come after Jesus departed, and who would complete his mission. I am content to believe that it is probable that Jesus actually said a “praiseworthy” messenger would follow him, and that John probably just used the wrong Greek word (though very similar to the correct one) to translate Jesus’ statement.

  17. Hello, I am not usually a person who replies to articles, however from early age I had many questions about religions. I do question everything and sometimes that really upset people ( different Religious) so I decided to search for the truth on my own. In short space of only few weeks it also played on my mind the very same questions which our brother mentioned. So thank you for your view, I greatly respect your finding and I am glad you took your time to share this with me as I feel I am not alone in finding the truth and hopefully taking on the right path. I come from Christian background but many things do not make sense. All I know that if you wanna know the truth you must study each detail and not just between the lines. You be surprise on what you find. Thank you, May you Peace and blessing be with you.

    • Katie, may God’s grace and peace be with you. Thank you so much for your response to this article. Yes, questions can be so irritating! 😆 However, questions are necessary to progress and growth. May your questions continue to be answered through the guidance of the All Knowing and All Wise.

  18. Muhammad claimed that Jewish and Christian scriptures had predicted his coming (see, e.g., Qur’an 7:157). This has led Muslim apologists to comb the Old and New Testaments in search of passages that refer to their prophet. While all biblical evidence offered by Muslims in support of their prophet appears horribly strained to non-Muslims (provided the latter read the passages in context) and has been thoroughly refuted time and again, it is still common to hear Muslims claim that the Bible speaks about Muhammad.

    The most popular “prophecy” about Muhammad is found in Deuteronomy 18. It is quite ironic, then, to learn that, according to Deuteronomy 18, Muhammad can’t possibly be a prophet. As we will see, this puts Muslims in an awkward position, and helps show the lengths to which they will go in their efforts to defend their prophet.

    The purpose of this essay is to prove, based on Muslim claims (including their appeal to Deuteronomy 18), that Muhammad was a false prophet. I will begin by presenting two arguments against the prophethood of Muhammad, and I will follow this by carefully defending the arguments. Once I have shown that the arguments are sound, I will briefly discuss the options available to Muslims who want to reject the obvious conclusion.

    I. THE DEUTERONOMY DEDUCTIONS

    There are two elements to look for when examining deductive arguments: valid logic and true premises. To say that a deductive argument is valid is to say that, due to the logical form, true premises will always lead to a true conclusion. The most basic argument form is the syllogism, and the most basic valid form of the syllogism is Modus Ponens.[3] The logical form of the following arguments is Modus Ponens; thus, they are logically valid:

    Argument A—false gods and false prophets

    A1. If a person speaks in the names of false gods, that person is a false prophet.
    A2. Muhammad spoke in the names of false gods.
    ——————————————————
    A3. Therefore, Muhammad was a false prophet.

    Argument B—false revelations and false prophets

    B1. If a person delivers a revelation that doesn’t come from God, that person is a false prophet.
    B2. Muhammad delivered a revelation that didn’t come from God.
    ——————————————————
    B3. Therefore, Muhammad was a false prophet.

    Since the logic of both arguments is valid, true premises will always lead to a true conclusion. Hence, if the premises of these arguments are true, Muhammad was a false prophet.

    • Stephen John – Thanks once again for taking the time to make a response to my article. However, your logic is flawed in the two examples you gave. In both cases one of your premises is false; therefore your conclusion is false.

      I will acknowledge the correctness both of premise “A1′ and ‘B1’. However both ‘A2’ and ‘B2’ are false premises. They are only assertions which would require proof – and you do not give such proof.

      Premise ‘A2’ states that “Muhammad spoke in the name of false gods”. As you have stated it, the premise is blatantly false, because Muhammad denied the existence of any ‘gods’ but the One and Only God – just as all the Hebrew prophets including Jesus had said. And the One and Only in whose name Muhammad spoke was not a false god – unless you’re claiming that the God of Abraham, Ishmael, Isaac, Jacob, Moses, David, Solomon, Jonah, Jesus, and the disciples of Jesus was a ‘false god’. It was in the name of that One God that Muhammad spoke. (“ilah” is just the exact Arabic equivalent of the Hebrew “eloh” or “eloah” – the plural of those Hebrew terms being “elohim”. “Allah” is just the combination of the Arabic words “al” – which means “the” – and “ilah” which simply means “god” or “God”.)

      Since premise ‘A2’ is false, then conclusion ‘A3’ is also false. Muhammad was not a false prophet by that attempted logical proof.

      Premise ‘B2’ stated that “Muhammad delivered a revelation that didn’t come from God”. Again, that is merely an assertion that requires proof; and you gave no proof (unless that ‘proof’ was simply the previous assertion in ‘A2’ – which was an unproven assertion, and in fact a false assertion). We believe that Muhammad’s revelation did indeed come from the One and Only God (the God of all the Hebrew prophets). We also believe, and the Qur’an states, that just as Jesus stated that all who were taught by God would recognize His voice in what Jesus said and would believe Jesus’ message and ‘come to’ him; so it is true of the prophet Muhammad: all who are taught by God (or ‘guided’ by Him) will recognize the voice of God in Muhammad’s message (if and when they hear it), believe it, and ‘come to’ him.

      So again, we find premise ‘B2’ to be false; therefore conclusion ‘B3’ is also false by this attempted logic of yours.

  19. Now wait, if you are going to quote Jesus, then you must include that he said he would be crucified, you do believe what he said right? If not, then he didn’t send ‘Mohammed” which is no where in the bible and never was…and after that point He would send the Comforter. Do you believe he was crucified? If not, why would there be a second coming? That implies there was a first and he came to accomplish something other than pop in for a while and leave..which makes him WAY more than a common man or a prophet/ And if he came once and left, where did he got to and where did he come from and where is he coming from again? Heaven./ That makes him more than a man.. It should first be noted that the words “ahmad” and “Muhammad” are two different things. The word “Muhammad” is a proper name and means “the one who is praiseworthy.” On the other hand, the word “ahmad” is an adjective meaning “worthy of praise.” It appears that the word “ahmad” was not used as a proper name prior to the time of Muhammad. That is why we find that nowhere in all the Qur’an is the prophet of Islam addressed as “Ahmad”. Instead we find the proper name “Muhammad…”

    As for the references in the book of John of the New Testament, the passages continue to describe this “paracletos” (comforter, advocate, counselor) as “the Spirit of Truth” whom the world cannot see, who lives in the hearts of the believers, and who will testify about Jesus. This is the same Spirit of whom Jesus spoke when he instructed his disciples:

    But you will receive power when the Holy Spirit comes on you; and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth.
    Acts 1:8
    After about fifty days following the death of Jesus, this promise of the Holy Spirit was fulfilled in the lives of the disciples, and it all happened in miraculous fashion on the Day of Pentecost. In describing the great event, the disciple of Jesus named Peter declared:

    God has raised this Jesus to life, and we are all witnesses of the fact. Exalted to the right hand of God, he has received from the Father the promised Holy Spirit and has poured out what you now see and hear.
    Acts 2:32-33

    • Stephen John – Thanks for taking the time to read and respond to this article. Regarding my views on the crucifixion and death of Jesus Christ, please read my article The Death of Jesus in the Qur’an, and perhaps the comments also (particularly those of ‘Hisham’ and the first one by ‘Muslimah123’) and my replies to them.

      For this comment, suffice it to say that Muslims are not unanimous on what it means when the Qur’an says that Jesus was not crucified or killed, but it was only made to appear so; instead God raised Jesus to Himself. It may surprise you to know that some Muslims do not accept the idea that someone else was crucified instead of Jesus (Judas perhaps?). There are some who believe that Jesus was indeed hung on a cross, and to all appearances he died. The Biblical writers, and Jesus himself, spoke in terms of that ‘appearance’ when they said Jesus died and then was raised from the dead – just as in normal speech we talk about the sun ‘rising’ and ‘setting’, when we know that this is not literally accurate scientifically speaking. Muslims such as Ahmad Deedat and Imran Hosein have take this view (or something very close to it), although I can’t provide you with links to the videos I have watched in which they explain this viewpoint. Also recently Sheila Musaji published an article at “The American Muslim” concerning some serious problems with one English version of the Qur’an. One of her objections is that in this passage about Jesus only appearing to die (4:157 and 158) the material added by the ‘translator’ would only leave room for the ‘substitution’ interpretation of this passage (that is, that someone else was substituted for Jesus).

      The Qur’an was responding to the boasting of the Jews (something which many Jews still do) that they had killed the one whom Christians recognize as the Christ. The Jews denied his resurrection, so they asserted that his death was final – at least until a future “day of resurrection’ in which all will be raised at the same time. The response of the Qur’an is that they are quite mistaken; Jesus did not die by crucifixion in that sense of ‘finality’ – it only appeared that he was dead. But God raised him up and took him to Himself.

      This is pretty much the same as the argument these days about ‘near death experiences’; did those people really die and then come back to life, or did they only appear to be dead and then ‘wake up’ from what was essentially a ‘coma’? As far as the Qur’an is concerned (from this interpretation), Jesus was in fact only ‘asleep’ (a terminology which the Bible also likes to use) – not dead. While to all appearances he was dead (and might have appeared so even by modern standards), it nevertheless was not actual death (as something ‘final’) but God raised him up.

      For the rest of your response, I believe the two articles I wrote on Jesus’ statements about the ‘comforter’ answer the objections you make. I pointed out that “spirit” – and even “holy spirit” – are used Biblically of God, angels, and humans. I showed clear reasons why I believe that “holy spirit” in the “comforter” passages referred to a human being who was to be sent after Jesus died. Other passages may well refer to God as “the Holy Spirit”, and some may refer to an angel. In the Qur’an it would appear that the angel Gabriel is referred to as “the holy spirit”. This would not preclude the interpretation I have given that Jesus referred to a coming human prophet (Muhammad) as “the holy spirit”.

    • “After about fifty days following the death of Jesus, this promise of the Holy Spirit was fulfilled in the lives of the disciples, and it all happened in miraculous fashion on the Day of Pentecost.”
      Stephen John, the Day of Pentecost was EXACTLY 40 days after the Day of the Resurrection (not about 50) and if you’ll search you’ll see that the number 40 apears all throughout the time over and over again in all the main religions (especially the ones who follow One God).
      E.g. 40 days of mourning for the Estern Orthodox Christians, 40 days special prayer after the body was laid in the ground, 40 days and 40 nights that Moses stayed on the Mount Sinai, 40 days before Ramadan starts it’s a very important day according to Islam and it’s the 15th of Sha’ban (if i am not mistaken as i am not muslim, am just a person in search for the truth), the day in which it is given to the angels the list of people who will die in that year,it is also wide spread in the asian communities to have a gathering to pray for the dead in the 40th day after the funeral and as well in the budhist religion ETC.
      So as you can see the number 40 apears on and on in all the main religions. However once againg, it is 40 and not “about 50”.

      Thank you all anyway for the nice reading … Long time i did not find smth entertaining the mind and the soul at the same time on blogs

      Stay blessed wherever you are 😉

      • Aurora – Peace be with you. Stephen John is apparently correct in his statement about the “Day of Pentecost” occurring about 50 days after the resurrection of Jesus Christ (peace be with him). Pentecost – as its very name indicates (PENTEcost) – occurred 50 days after Passover; and Jesus’ crucifixion is said to have occurred at the time of Passover. His resurrection is said to have occurred 3 days later, so Stephen John is correct in saying Pentecost was about 50 days following the resurrection.

        The period of 40 days to which you refer was, according to the ‘accepted’ account, the period between the resurrection of Jesus (PBUH) and his ‘ascension’ (Acts 1:3). After his ‘ascension’, the disciples waited in Jerusalem until “the Day of Pentecost was fully come” (Acts 2:1). According to the ‘accepted’ version, that period of waiting would have been about 1 week (3 days between crucifixion and resurrection, + 40 days to the ascension, + 7 days = 50 days).

        Thank you for your comment, though. These things are not always entirely clear; and there are discrepancies in the various crucifixion, resurrection, and ascension accounts of the ‘Gospel’ writers.

  20. […] […]

    • While I appreciate you reading my article (if you actually read the whole thing) and linking to it in your comment on the other site, you did me a disservice by making it seem like I agree with your contention that the ‘counselor’ is the “holy spirit” as Christianity understands it. Anyone who bothers to check out my articles, though, will plainly see that I emphasized the word “seems” in the paragraph from which you quoted for a reason. The rest of the article seeks to show that what might ‘appear’ to be the case is not actually true. I contended that the ‘counselor’ was Muhammad (peace be with him and his family). So I am definitely not in agreement with your conclusions.

  21. WOW, im actually fully amazed that you have managed to figure this out, im really impressed, i think you have converted into a Muslim by what your saying.
    the testimony of faith: There is no god but Allah, and Mohammed is his messenger.
    You have agreed with that, so i think it would be right to pray for you now. I will remember you in my prayers, and btw if you want to talk about anything religious or anything to do with Islam in any way, feel free to contact me at my email address.

  22. This is false doctrine. Jesus told his disciples not to go out and preach the gospel until the Holy Spirit came upon them. The Holy Spirit was He who came to dwell in People’s hearts; who transferred the laws from stone to our hearts. The Holy Spirit was not Muhammad.

    • Peace be with you, Alex. Thank you for taking the time to read my article and post a comment. Polite comments are always welcome, even though they might not agree with my viewpoint.

      The apostle Paul said that one person sows seed, another person waters, but God is the One who gives increase. So also the Prophet Muhammad was told many times in the Qur’an that his responsibility was only to proclaim the good news of God’s kindness and mercy, and warn of God’s judgment; God will use that message to guide whom He will. Therefore I also don’t feel any need to try to browbeat anyone into accepting my viewpoint. 😀

      I have given, in my articles, the reasons I don’t believe the Counselor (spirit of truth, holy spirit) Jesus spoke of in John 14, 15, and 16 was the Holy Spirit Who/Which filled the believers on that Day of Pentecost recorded in Acts 2. It would certainly not be appropriate to rehash those arguments in this comment.

      Nevertheless, if you don’t mind I would like to expand on one point. Aside from the fact that the Holy Spirit had been present in the world since creation, and was particularly present in the ministry of Jesus Christ (peace be with him) and his disciples while he was still on earth (how else were the evil spirits subject to them when Jesus sent them out to minister?) – and so it could not be said that the Holy Spirit could not come to them unless Jesus departed from them – there is a good bit of ambiguity in the word “spirit”.

      The Greek and Hebrew words which are rendered as “spirit” in English can also mean “breath” and “wind”. Context will usually determine the meaning being used, but even then it is not always clear. In the famous dialogue between Jesus and Nicodemus in John 3, Jesus is quoted as saying “the wind blows where it will…” Most people will agree with that rendering; but there are some who insist that it should read “the Spirit breathes where He will”. On the other hand, in Genesis 1:2 where almost all English translations say something like “the Spirit of God was moving over the face of the waters”, I seem to recall that The New English Bible created a bit of a stir by rendering it something like “a wind from God” was blowing across the waters.

      Just as the very meaning of the word “pneuma” (spirit/wind/breath) is not always clear, so to whom the word “spirit” is referring is not always clear. When the first letters are capitalized in English (Holy Spirit, or just Spirit), obviously the translator believes it is God to Whom the text refers. But the Greek and Hebrew texts themselves do not contain that capitalization. “Spirit” can refer to God, an angel, or a man. Since angels are “ministering spirits”, a “holy angel” is a “holy spirit” (in the Qur’an, the angel Gabriel is referred to as a “holy spirit”); and an evil angel is an “evil spirit”. In 1 John 4, men are referred to as “a spirit of truth” or “a spirit of error” – depending on what they teach about the humanity of Jesus Christ, and whether or not they listen to the teaching of the apostles.

      So within the context of John 14, 15, and 16, I believe this “holy spirit” or “spirit of truth” to whom Jesus referred is a human messenger like Jesus whom God would send to complete Jesus’ mission (“I have many things to say to you, but you are unable to bear them now”). That human messenger I believe to have been Muhammad (peace be to him and his family). You, of course, are quite free to disagree unless or until God convinces you otherwise.

      God’s kindness and blessing be with you at all times. 🙂

  23. Completely your choice, I pray you come to the cross. We are saved by grace through faith in the Father’s faithfulness and mercy, which is in His Son Jesus Christ, not by works, lest any man should boast.

  24. The Quran, chapter 4:157 says:

    “They declared ‘We have put to death the Messiah, Jesus, the son of Mary, the apostle of God’. They did not kill him, nor did they crucify him, but they had only his likeness.” Why would God make a liar of himself?

    Matthew 24:24 For there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets, and shall shew great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect.

    • Thanks for your response, Dewey. In July of 2010, I wrote an article entitled “The Death of Jesus in the Qur’an” in which I acknowledged that this apparent denial of the crucifixion and death of Jesus was something that still troubled me about Islam. However I offered another explanation of the text which, if correct, would resolve the differences between Islam and Christianity on that point.

      Whether or not I was successful in reconciling those differences each person will have to judge for him/herself. It’s still the ‘interpretation’ I follow. But if I should come to the conclusion that my explanation is wrong, and the Qur’an does in fact deny that Jesus was crucified and died, then at this point I will have to accept the truthfulness of the Qur’an and believe that it is the Bible which presents a falsehood.

      That the Bible contains numerous errors, and sometimes apparently deliberate falsehoods, is something which I find increasingly obvious. Relatively recently I was made aware of one example of what can only be a deliberate misquotation of the prophet Malachi – and a consequent deliberate distortion of his meaning. Malachi 3:1 says: “Behold, I will send my messenger, and he shall prepare the way before ME: and the Lord, whom ye seek, shall suddenly come to his temple, even the messenger of the covenant, whom ye delight in: behold, he shall come, saith the LORD of hosts.” The Septuagint version (Greek) renders it “he shall prepare the way before MY FACE”.

      Yet in all 3 of the places in the Gospels in which this verse is referred to, it is misquoted to say: “Behold, I send my messenger before YOUR face, who will prepare YOUR way before YOU” (Matt. 11:10; see Mark 1:2 and Luke 7:27). In Malachi there is one messenger – the “messenger of the covenant” – who is to prepare the way of the LORD who sent him. That messenger is either Jesus or Muhammad (peace be to them both) depending on one’s perspective. The Gospel writers deliberately misquote Malachi to make him refer to 2 messengers: the first one they say refers to John the Baptist, who came to prepare the way for the second (“the messenger of the covenant”) who was Jesus.

      In Mark, it is the author of the Gospel account who does the misquoting and misinterpreting; but Matthew and Luke have the audacity to attribute this falsehood to God’s holy prophet Jesus Christ! I maintain that whoever wrote those Gospel accounts conspired to propagate a deliberate falsehood which actually slanders the one whom they claimed to serve (Jesus Christ). I don’t believe their lie even for a second. I personally have pretty much come to the conclusion that the one Malachi referred to as “the messenger of the covenant” was Muhammad (peace be to him and his family). The Gospel writers had an agenda to twist this and many other “Old Testament” predictions so that they came to refer to Jesus Christ.

      So as I said, if I have to make a choice between what God has revealed in the Qur’an, and what the Bible writers have written, I believe that it is the Bible writers who ‘lied’ and the Qur’an which contains the truth.

      Jesus (peace be with him) did indeed predict the coming of false prophets; and as his apostle John commented in his first epistle, he knew that it was “the last time” because he could see the fulfillment of this prophecy. There were many false Christs and false prophets living while John was writing that letter.

      There were also many false prophets in the “Old Testament” times. There were false prophets when Jeremiah prophesied, but Jeremiah was not one of them. There were false prophets when Jesus was on earth and in the decades following, but Jesus was not one of them. There have been false prophets since then also, but Muhammad (peace be to him and his family) was not one of them. Many of Jesus’ contemporaries accused him of being a false prophet and of “having a demon”. They believed that Jesus’ disciples were the ones who were deceived. But Jesus was a true prophet of God, and it was the deniers who were deceived. Many people have said that Muhammad was a false prophet and a sorcerer who had a demon, and that his followers are deceived. You appear to be one of those who think so. Yet for many of us who have read the Qur’an, our hearts have been stirred within us and we joyfully recognize it as God’s truth. We have heard and recognized the voice of God’s “shepherd”, and we follow him. We recognize that Muhammad confirmed the truth of the prophets who preceded him (such as Abraham, David, Solomon, and Jesus the Anointed), and corrected the falsehoods which had crept in to distort their message.

      Jesus, according to the Gospel of John, promised that another prophet would come after him who would speak the words God gave him to speak, and fully make known God’s truth. I, and muslims in general, recognize the fulfillment of this promise in Muhammad.

      We of course hope that people such as yourself, whom I will assume sincerely seek to know and obey God’s Truth, will have their eyes opened to see and recognize that Truth as it has been revealed through the prophet Muhammad. But we leave it to God to guide you into His Truth, as He is the only One Who can do so.

  25. I love reading these articles. They are very good and give me big portion of information.

  26. I don’t usually reply to posts but I will in this case. WoW Smile

    • Peace be with you, Arlean; and “thanks for the flowers”. 😀

  27. This article was really good. I look forward to reading another one.

  28. The article you wrote is really nice.

  29. Jesus did “NOT” say another prophet would follow Him. You must use a King James Bible not a modern versions.

    John 16:7-15 Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you. And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of judgment: Of sin, because they believe not on me; Of righteousness, because I go to my Father, and ye see me no more; Of judgment, because the prince of this world is judged. I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now. Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come. He shall glorify me: for he shall receive of mine, and shall shew it unto you. All things that the Father hath are mine: therefore said I, that he shall take of mine, and shall shew it unto you.

    Pretty simple to see who Jesus was referring to; the “SPIRIT OF TRUTH”. not a real person.

    Also, if it is another prophet, which one, many alleged prophets came after Jesus.

    • Peace be with you Chris. Thank you for taking the time to write a reply to my article. Unfortunately, it appears that you did not take the time to read the article before replying.

      First of all, I feel no obligation to use your favorite English translation, the KJV. The New Testament was written in Greek, not English (and especially not King James English). The King James Version is simply one translation by a particular group of editors; and I have no reason to believe they were infallibly inspired in their efforts, or that the presently outdated English they used was somehow particularly “holy”.

      However, I have no objection to using that version in this case, as the meaning of the old English is in every whit the same as the more modern English of the Revised Standard Version which I used. The only real difference is in choosing to use the word “Counselor” rather than “Comforter” to translate the Greek word “parakletos”.

      Even the underlying Greek texts of the two translations is the same in this passage. The only real difference in the texts (and it’s not a major difference) is in verse 15 where the Textus Receptus used by the KJV translators reads ἐκ τοῦ ἐμοῦ λήψεται (“he shall take of mine”); but the Nestle and United Bible Society Texts (and the “Majority Text” also in this case) usually used by the editors of the modern English translations use the present tense εκ του εμου λαμβανει (“he takes of mine”). However, if you’ll notice, the RSV chose to accept the Textus Receptus’ reading using the future tense (“he will take what is mine”).

      So the use of the RSV rather than the KJV makes absolutely no difference in the interpretation of the passages.

      Concerning your one listed objection to my article (“Pretty simple to see who Jesus was referring to; the “SPIRIT OF TRUTH”. not a real person”), had you bothered to actually read my article you would see that from the very first paragraph I was dealing with that very objection! In that first paragraph, I commented that it would seem obvious that this coming “Comforter” was “the Holy Spirit” who came on “the Day of Pentecost”. Then in the rest of the article I gave reasons why this apparent identification was inaccurate. Please read the article and see whether or not I have given a satisfactory answer to this objection. And then read my next article, “Part 2”, to see if I have satisfactorily answered other objections to my interpretation.

      By the way, as you’re no doubt aware, the Greek texts do not distinguish between “the Holy Spirit/holy spirit” and “the Spirit/spirit of truth” as our English translations usually do. The capitalization of the initial letters to indicate the Divine Spirit is purely an interpretive practice of the translators, not something the original writers did.

      As to who I believe the coming prophet was, I am also quite clear in the article: the prophet Muhammad (peace be with him and his family). As I said in one paragraph:

      “Who is this prophetic spirit whom Jesus predicted? I agree with Anselm Tormeeda, the 14th century Christian priest who embraced the prophethood of Muhammad on the basis of Jesus’ prophecy, that this prophetic spirit is clearly Muhammad. Muhammad did not speak on his own authority, but spoke only what he heard from God or His angel Gabriel. Not one word in the Qur’an is ever attributed directly to Muhammad; it is always Gabriel who tells Muhammad, “Say…” The message brought through Muhammad honored and glorified his predecessor Jesus Christ. He came with the blessing and authority of Jesus Christ, who sent him from the Father (by praying the Father to send him).”

      Jesus Christ (peace be with him) said that the “spirit of truth” would not “speak on his own authority” but would only speak what he heard. As the Qur’an testifies (and those who heard prophet Muhammad verified this): “[53:1] CONSIDER this unfolding [of God’s message], as it comes down from on high! [53:2] This fellow-man of yours has not gone astray, nor is he deluded, [53:3] and neither does he speak out of his own desire: [53:4] that [which he conveys to you] is but [a divine] inspiration with which he is being inspired – [53:5] something that a very mighty one has imparted to him: [53:6] [an angel] endowed with surpassing power, who in time manifested himself in his true shape and nature.”

      Having read the Qur’an, and being in the process of re-reading it, I can testify that it has captured my heart; I recognize it as truly a revelation from the Compassionate and Merciful One. Why don’t you read it to see what you think? You can find it online in various versions. Ones I refer to are Muhammad Asad’s; Yusuf Ali’s; M. H. Shakir’s; and Sahih International. There are some others to which I also refer on occasion, but that’s a good start. My personal favorite is Muhammad Asad’s version, as he has copious footnotes (at the end of each chapter/sura online) to explain why he translated the way he did, the meaning of many concepts, and the historical background of many of the passages. So check it out and see what you think. To use that version, you will find a box at the top right hand corner which contains the Arabic name of the chapter in English letters, then in Arabic script, followed by the number of the chapter (Sura). Click on the drop down arrow on the left side of the box, and then click on the number of the chapter you wish to view.

  30. […] Icerocket blogs- read full christian families article: Did Jesus Say Another Prophet Would Follow Him? […]

  31. […] from Icerocket blogs: Did Jesus Say Another Prophet Would Follow Him? Tags: No tags Categories: Uncategorized You can leave a response, […]


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