One of the worst accusations it is possible to make against someone these days is to label him/her an “anti-Semite”. Once this label has been attached to someone, his/her livelihood and life have the potential of being ruined. So it is logical to ask what it means to be an anti-Semite.
Although most people probably think the answer is obvious, let’s see what a dictionary definition of “Semite” is. The first definition at dictionary.reference.com is: “1. a member of any of various ancient and modern peoples originating in southwestern Asia, including the Akkadians, Canaanites, Phoenicians, Hebrews, and Arabs.” Another dictionary definition (also given at the dictionary.reference.com site linked to above), from the British Dictionary, is : “1. a member of the group of Caucasoid peoples who speak a Semitic language, including the Jews and Arabs as well as the ancient Babylonians, Assyrians, and Phoenicians.”
A more extended ‘definition’ of “Semite” is provided by Wikipedia.org: “In linguistics and ethnology, Semitic (from the Biblical “Shem”, Hebrew: שם) was first used to refer to a language family, initially native to West Asia (the Middle East), but which spread to Asia Minor, North Africa, The Horn of Africa and Malta, now called the Semitic languages. This family includes the ancient and modern forms of Ahlamu, Akkadian (including Assyrian and Babylonian dialects), Amharic, Amalekite, Ammonite, Amorite, Arabic, Aramaic/Syriac, Canaanite (Phoenician/Carthaginian/Hebrew), Assyrian, Chaldean, Eblaite, Edomite, Ge’ez, Old South Arabian, Modern South Arabian, Maltese, Mandaic, Moabite, Proto-Sinaitic, Sutean, Syriac, Tigre and Tigrinya, and Ugaritic, among others.
“As language studies are interwoven with cultural studies, the term also came to describe the extended cultures and ethnicities, as well as the history of these varied peoples as associated by close geographic and linguistic distribution. Today, the word “Semite” may be used to refer to any member of any of a number of peoples of ancient Middle East including the Akkadians, Assyrians, Arameans, Phoenicians, Hebrews (Jews), Arabs, and their descendants”.
Plainly, then, in reality the term Semite includes quite a number of different “peoples”. In terms of the Biblical (Old Testament) stories, not only were the people of Judea and Samaria “Semites”, but the Assyrians and Babylonians who conquered them were also “Semites”! So if one were pro-Babylonian he couldn’t be properly labeled “anti-Semite” even though he perhaps hated the Judeans.
In modern times, the term “Semite” includes Jews, Palestinians, Lebanese, Syrians, Iraqis, and Arabs. Does that come as a surprise? That’s certainly not the way the term is most often used, is it? This brings us to the second dictionary definition of “Semite” (from dictionary.reference.com): “2. a Jew.” And the British Dictionary definition is the same: “2. another word for a Jew.”
The second definition, although given in those respected dictionaries (and no doubt many others) is plainly a false definition. There is simply no legitimate way in which a term which has such a wide meaning can be restricted and limited to one specific subset of the proper definition. How then did such a limitation come to be? And how did it come to be that in popular usage the illegitimate second meaning of the term came to be the primary (indeed practically the only) meaning attached to the term?
The explanation is supreme Jewish arrogance – as they like to call it, “chutzpah” – and the amazing ability of supremacist Jewry to hoodwink the vast majority of non-Jews into submitting to their insane ideas of “chosenness”. To the Judaic mind, as informed by their atrocious Torah and Talmud, the Jews are the only people that truly matter. Everyone else is simply unimportant. In fact, no other “people” actually exist! All others (besides Jews) are animals, disguised in human form to make it less offensive to the Jews to have to live among them! Therefore the Jews do not recognize any other “Semites”; and they have managed to ‘hornswoggle’ most “Gentiles” into believing that nonsense.
This attitude is also evident in the “Holocaust” (“Shoah”) propaganda. When we think of the word “Holocaust”, we have been programmed by Jews and their collaborators to think only of one event: the purported murder of 6 million Jews by the Germans under Hitler in World War 2. (And we have been so browbeaten by “Holocaust” advocates that in many countries it is a criminal offense to even question any of the claims made for that event – not to mention the ‘evil’ of having the audacity to actually deny the reality of the “Holocaust” in general, or any of the specifics included under that term.)
Yet there have been many “holocausts” throughout the centuries and millennia of human existence, and the supposed “holocaust” of Jews in the Second World War is relatively insignificant in comparison to some others. To give just one example: the “Red Holocaust” as the result of the Communist Revolution in Russia/the Soviet Union. Most of its victims were Christians and Muslims; Jews were not killed (at least, not for being Jews). There is good reason for that, since most of the leaders of that revolution were themselves Jews. This was a “Holocaust” committed by Jews (as of course was and is the case of the massacres of Christians and Muslims in Palestine).
Here are a couple of paragraphs from Wikipedia on the “Red Holocaust”:
Mass killings under Communist regimes
From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Mass killings occurred under some Communist regimes during the twentieth century with an estimated death toll numbering between 85 and 100 million. …
Comparison to other mass killings
Daniel Goldhagen argues that 20th century Communist regimes “have killed more people than any other regime type.” Other scholars in the fields of Communist studies and genocide studies, such as Steven Rosefielde, Benjamin Valentino, and R.J. Rummel, have come to similar conclusions. Rosefielde states that it is possible the “Red Holocaust” killed more non-combatants than “Ha Shoah” and “Japan’s Asian holocaust” combined, and “was at least as heinous, given the singularity of Hitler’s genocide.” Rosefielde also notes that “while it is fashionable to mitigate the Red Holocaust by observing that capitalism killed millions of colonials in the twentieth century, primarily through man-made famines, no inventory of such felonious negligent homicides comes close to the Red Holocaust total.” [Emphasis mine.]
My point is not to argue whether 6 million Jews died, or 600,000, or somewhere in between. It’s also not my point to argue whether all or any of those killed died by gassing. The point is that even granting everything claimed for the Jewish “Holocaust”, it pales before other “Holocausts”. Yet the Jews in their arrogance have managed to blind us to everything except what was done to them. That is because, once again, the Jews believe that no one else matters; in fact they don’t even exist as “people”.
It’s high time we started ignoring the arrogance of Jewish supremacists, and even started laughing at their nonsense. I don’t even try to hide the fact that I despise Zionism, the “Jewish State of Israel”, and the Judaism that provides the basis for them. But if I am accused of being “anti-Semitic” because of that, I will just laugh and reply: “Of course I’m not anti-Semitic; I love Palestinians – and Lebanese, Syrians, Iraqis, and Arabs!” To accuse me of “anti-Semitism” is as absurd as saying someone who for some reason has something against Ethiopians, is “anti-Black” – despite the fact that he is favorably disposed to people from Kenya, Sudan, Nigeria, the Congo, etc.
To define “Semite” as “a Jew” is as absurd as defining “Black Person” as “an Ethiopian”. It’s the same as the old saying that while it is correct to say a dog has 4 legs, it is not true to say an animal with 4 legs is a dog! (Cats, horses, sheep, lions, tigers, etc. all have 4 legs, but are certainly not dogs). A Jew may be a Semite (though there is considerable debate as to whether the majority of present day Jews are in fact Semites), but it is definitely NOT correct to say that a Semite is a Jew – no matter how many dictionaries give that as one of the definitions of “Semite”. And a person is not an “anti-Semite” just because he despises the religion of Judaism, or its ‘fruits’ of Zionism and “Israel”.
It is no more ‘evil’ to be anti-Judaism than it is to be anti-Muslim, anti-Christian, anti-Buddhist, etc. There can be no legitimate law outlawing dislike for – or even hatred for – any particular religion, or religion in general.
While citizens of the illegitimate State of “Israel” may be required to be loyal to that “State”, no other citizen of any other country in the world may be legitimately required to be loyal to or even like that criminal regime – any more than it can be required of any non-German or non-Iranian citizen to be loyal to or like those countries and their governments.
Let’s use our heads, think reasonably and critically, and repudiate Jewish myths and lies – and especially Jewish supremacism (as well as all other supremacist ideologies such as “white supremacism” and “black supremacism”).